Max. Mark : 360

Time :1.30 Min.

Subject: Biology

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This Booklet contains 08 Pages.

                                                                       NTA MODEL PAPER-1

                                                                   NEET 2020 Test Booklet Code  - P

                                                        NTA MODEL PAPER-1 2 TEST BOOKLET CODE - P



01. Which of the following statement is true regarding the

role of acetylcholine in nerve physiology?

(1) It increases the selective permeability of the cell

membrane

(2) It increases the potassium concentration inside the

axon

(3) It reduces activity of Na-K pump

(4) It increases the sodium concentration outside the

axon

02. A bicollateral vascular bundle is characterized by

(1) Phloem surrounded on both sides by xylem

(2) Transverse splitting of vascular bundle

(3) Longitudinal splitting of vascular bundle

(4) Xylem surrounded on both sides by phloem

03. A few statements describing certain feature of

reproduction are given below:

i. Gametic fusion takes place.

ii. Transfer of genetic material take place.

iii. The reduction division takes place.

iv. Progeny has a resemblance to parents.

Select the option that are true for both asexual and

sexual reproduction.

(1) i and ii (2) ii and iii

(3) ii and iv (4) i and iii

04. Rot does not help in the absorption of water in which

of the following plant?

(1) Pistia (2) Pea

(3) Wheat (4) Sunflower

05. Artificial induction of roots on stems before it is

separated from the parent plant for propagation is

called

(1) cutting

(2) layering

(3) plant tissue culture

(4) grafting

06. Generally, the number of integuments in the ovule f

angiosperms and gymnosperms is

(1) One and two (2) One and one

(3) Two and one (4) Two and two

07. Cartilage is formed by

(1) Osteoblasts (2) Chondrocytes

(3) Fibroblasts (4) Epithelium

08. The leghaemoglobin that imparts pink-red colour to the

root nodules is located in

(1) The wall of bacteria

(2) The wall of host cell

(3) The cytoplasm f host cell

(4) Between bacteroids and surrounding

09. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates

(1) Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone

(2) Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline

(3) Juxta-glomerular cells to release renin

(4) Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

10. Ephemerals are xerophytes that are

(1) Drought resisting (2) Drought enduring

(3) Drought escaping (4) None of these

11. What is true about Bt toxin?

(1) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus

(2) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest

to sterilize it and thus prevent its multiplication.

(3) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.

(4) The inactive protoxin gets converted into an active

form in the insect gut.

12. Identify the wrong statement regarding post-fertilization

development?

(1) The ovary wall develops in pericarp

(2) The outer integument of the ovule develops into a

tegmen

(3) The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus ) develops into

endosperm

(4) The ovule develops into seed

13. Selaginella has a tendency to from seed, called seed

habit because it follows

(1) Retention of megaspore permanently inside the

megasporangium

(2) Heterospory

(3) Both (A) and (B)

(4) None of the above

14. Cytokinin was first discovered by

(1) Skoog and Miller

(2) Boyer

(3) Benson and Calvin

(4) Went

15. The term surrogate mother is used for

(1) Induction of lactation

(2) Artificially inseminated female

(3) Future mother with transplanted embryo

(4) Mother who provides ovum

16. Which of the following palindromic sequence is

recognized by EcoRl?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

                                     NTA MODEL PAPER-1 3 TEST BOOKLET CODE - P

17. Removal of calcium from freshly collected blood would

(1) Cause delayed clotting

(2) Prevent Clotting

(3) Cause immediate clotting

(4) Prevent destruction of haemoglobin

18. Synapsis is pairing of

(1) Any two chromosomes

(2) Non homologous chromosomes

(3) Acentric chromosomes

(4) Homologous chromosomes

19. The endometrium is found in

(1) Placenta of mammals

(2) Nipple of mammals

(3) Uterus of mammals

(4) None of these

20. Consider the statements given below regarding

contraception and answer as directed thereafter.

1. Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) during

the first trimester is generally safe.

2. Generally, chance of conception are nil until the

Mother breast-feeds the infant for up to two years.

3. Intrauterine devices like copper-T-are effective

contraceptives.

4. Emergency contraceptive pills may be taken up to

one week after coitus to prevent conception.

Which two of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3

(3) 3 and 4 (4) 2 and 4

21. When succinyl - CoA is converted into succinic acid,

the energy-storing compound formed is

(1) ADP (2) GDP

(3) AMP (4) GTP

22 Find the incorrect pair.

(1) Bowman’s capsule- Glomerular filtration

(2) PCT-Absorption of Na+ and K+

(3) DCT-Absorption of glucose

(4) None of these

23. Which part of the human brain controls the urge for

eating and drinking?

(1) Forebrain (2) Midbrain

(3) Hindbrain (4) Spinal cord

24. The haploid cell which divides by mitosis to form

embryosac is

(1) Megaspore mother cell

(2) Microspore mother cell

(3) Functional megaspore

(4) Non-functional megaspore

25. The most common indicator organism that represents

polluted water is

(1) E.coli (2) P.typhi

(3) C. vibrio (4) Entamoeba

26. A DNA strand is directly in the synthesis of all of the

following, except

(1) Anther DNA (2) Protein synthesis

(3) tRNA molecule (4) mRNA molecule

27. In Bryophytes, antherozoids are

(1) Biflagellate

(2) Multiflagellate

(3) Sometimes biflagellate and sometimes

multiflagellate

(4) Biflagellate in a few species and multiflagellate in

the rest

28. Lichens are ecologically important as they

(1) Purify air

(2) Are pioneers of barren rocks

(3) Are symbionts of algae and fungi

(4) Are associated with mycorrhizal roots

29. The loosely arranged non-chlorophyllous parenchyma

cells present in lenticels are called

(1) Complementary cells

(2) Passage cells

(3) Water stomata

(4) Albuminous cells

30. By the use of biotechnology, the production of B2

vitamins has been increased to about 20,000 time in

which of the following organism?

(1) Ashbya gossypii

(2) Escherichia coli

(3) Pseudomonas denitrificans

(4) Propionibacterium shemanii

31. The role bacteria in carbon cycle is

(1) Photosynthesis

(2) Chemosynthesis

(3) Decomposition of organic compounds

(4) Evolution of O2

32. Which of the following is the closest relative of man?

(1) Chimpanzee (2) Gorilla

(3) Orangutan (4) Gibbon

33. For transformation with recombinant DNA, the

bacterial cells must first be made competent which

means

(1) Should increase their metabolic reactions

(2) Should decrease their metabolic reactions

(3) Increase efficiency with Which DNA enters the

bacterium

(4) Ability to divide fast

34. If a colour blind woman marries a normal visioned man,

their sons will be

(1) One-half colour blind and one-half normal

(2) Three-fourth colour blind and one fourth normal

(3) All clolour blind

(4) All normal visioned

35. If both ovaries are removed from the rat, the

concentration of which hormone is decreased in blood?

(1) Oxytocin

(2) Prolactin

(3) Estrogen

(4) Gonadotropin releasing factor

                                    NTA MODEL PAPER-1 4 TEST BOOKLET CODE - P

36. Which of the following crops has been brought to India

from the new world?

(1) Cashewnut, potato, rubber

(2) Mango, tea

(3) Tea, rubber, mango

(4) Coffee

37. Botanical name of cauliflower is

(1) Brassica oleracea var. capitata

(2) Brassica campesteris

(3) Brassica oleracea var, botrytis

(4) Brassica oleracea var.gemmifera

38. One the basis of symptoms of chlorosis in leaves, a

student inferred that this was due to the deficiency of

nitrogen. This inference could be correct only if we

assume that yellowing of leaves appeared first in

(1) Old leaves

(2) Young leaves

(3) Young leaves followed by mature leaves

(4) Young leaves followed by older leaves

39. If the total amount of adenine and thymine in doublestranded

DNA is 60%, then the amount of guanine in

this DNA Will be

(1) 15% (2) 20%

(3) 30% (4) 40%

40. Vector for ‘Kala azar’ disease is

(1) Sand fly (2) House fly

(3) Louse (4) Bed bug

41. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

(1) Cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule

(2) Recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for

binding of DNA ligase

(3) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase

(4) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA

molecule

42. The first line of defence is

(1) Antibodies (2) WBC

(3) Skin (4) Liver

43. Which of the following papillae are without taste bud

in the human tongue?

(1) Vallate (2) Fungiform

(3) Fusiform (4) Filiform

44. According to the chemiosmotic mechanism for ATP

synthesis, the force\factor responsible for ATP

synthesis is

(1) Membrane potential across membrane

(2) Proton motive force

(3) Electromotive force

(4) Redox potential

45. Convergent evolution is illustrated by

(1) Dogfish and whale

(2) Rat and dog

(3) Bacterium and protozoan

(4) Starfish and cuttle fish

46. In the human body, which one of the following is

anatomically correct?

(1) Collar bones – 3 pairs

(2) salivary glands – 1 pairs

(3) Cranial nerves – 10 pairs

(4) Floating ribs – 2 pairs

47. Site of attachment of spindle fibres in chromosome

lies

(1) One the sides of centromere

(2) After secondary constriction

(3) Near telomere

(4) Within centromere

48. What will happen if ligament are cut or broken?

(1) Bones will move freely at joints

(2) No movement at joints

(3) Bones will become unfix

(4) Bones will become fixed

49. Biogas contains

(1) 30%-40% methane

(2) 50%-70% Co2

(3) 50%-70% methane

(4) 20% methane

50. Select the correct statement related to flowering in

plants.

i. Some plants require a periodic exposure to light to

induce flowering

ii. The flowering is either quantitatively or qualitatively

dependent on exposure to low temperature.

iii. The site of perception of light/dark duration is the

stem apex.

iv. Flowering in plants is due to the hormones

produced in the shoot apex.

(1) i, ii, and ii are correct

(2) i and ii are correct

(3) i, ii, and iv are correct

(4) All are correct

51. Which statement is not true for binomial system of

nomenclature?

(1) Biological names are general in Latin or Latinised

or derived from Latin irrespective of their origin

(2) The first word in a biological name represents the

species while the second word denotes the genus.

(3) The first word of biological name starts with capital

letter and the first letter of second word starts with

small letter

(4) Name of the author is written in abbreviated form

after the specific epithet

52. Air layering is performed in case of

(1) Jasmine (2) Grapevine

(3) Gooseberry (4) Litchi

53. Blood group AB has

(1) No antigen

(2) No antibody

(3) Neither antigen nor antibody

(4) Both antigen and antibody

                                         NTA MODEL PAPER-1 5 TEST BOOKLET CODE - P

54. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules

containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing microorganisms?

(1) Casuarina equisetifolia

(2) Crotalaria Juncea

(3) Cycas revoluta

(4) Cicer arietinum

55. The mammary gland is a modification of

(1) Sweat gland (2) Salivary gland

(3) Lacrimal gland (4) None of these

56. Which of the following plant material is widely used in

the preparation of the culture medium?

(1) Pinus longifolia

(2) Cocos nucifera

(3) Borassus flabellifer

(4) Cycas revoluta

57. Which of the following show higher rate of respiration?

(1) Collenchyma (2) Leaf

(3) Dry seeds (4) Germinating seeds

58. The main function of lacteals in the human small

intestine is the absorption of

(1) glucose and vitamins

(2) Amino acids and glucose

(3) water and vitamins

(4) Fatty acids and glycerol

59. Hammerling’s experiments of Acetabularia involved

exchanging of

(1) Cytoplasm (2) Nucleus

(3) Rhizoid and stalk (4) Gametes

60. Alpha diversity is biodiversity present

(1) Within community

(2) Between community

(3) Ranges of communities

(4) all the above

61. Ranthambre National Park is situated in

(1) Maharashtra (2) Rajasthan

(3) Gujarat (4) U.P.

62. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between

(1) Bacteria and fungi

(2) Algae and fungi

(3) Fungi and roots of higher plants

(4) Blue green algae and roots of higher plants

63. Adrenaline directly affects on

(1) S.A. node

(2)  -cells of Langerhans

(3) The dorsal root of spinal cord

(4) Epithelial cells of stomach

64. Which is the correct pair for an edible part?

(1) tomato-Thalamus

(2) Maize-Cotyledons

(3) Guava-Pericarp

(4) Date palm-Mesocarp

65. Reproducing new plants by cells instead of seeds is

known as

(1) Mutation (2) Tissue culture

(3) Antibiotics (4) Biofertilizer

66. Who discovered “ribosomes” in animal cells?

(1) Watson (2) Temin

(3) Chaudhary (4) Palade

67. GIFT involves a transfer of

(1) A mixture of sperms and ova into the uterus

(2) Embryo into the uterus

(3) A mixture of sperms and ova into the fallopian tube

(4) zygote into the fallopian tube

68. Contractile vacuole of Amoeba placed in salt water

will

(1) Burst (2) Disappear

(3) Enlarge (4) Multiply

69. Eutrophication is caused by

(1) Phosphate rocks only

(2) Agricultural fertilizers only

(3) Sewage and phosphate rocks

(4) Sewage and agricultural fertilizers

70. When you hold your breath, which of the following

gas changes inblood would first lead to the urge to

breathe?

(1) Falling O2 concentration

(2) Rising CO2 concentration

(3) Falling CO2 concentration

(4) Rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration

71. Weberian ossicles are found in

(1) Frogs (2) Snakes

(3) Fishes (4) Birds

72. In Drosophila, the allele for normal grey body colour

(G) is dominant to the ebony body (g). The following

table summarises the results of several crosses:

Cross Result

Strain 1× gg All Grey type

Strain 2 × gg 1 Grey : 1 ebony

Strain 3 × gg All ebony type

Strain 4 × Gg 3 Grey : 1 ebony

Which strains have the genotype Gg?

(1) 1 and 3 (2) 1 and 4

(3) 2 and 3 (4) 2 and 4

73. Which type of mouthparts is present on the lateral side

of the pre-oral cavity in cockroach?

(1) Labrum and mandibles

(2) Mandibles and labium

(3) Mandibles and 1st maxillae

(4) Mandibles and hypopharynx

                                            NTA MODEL PAPER-1 6 TEST BOOKLET CODE - P

74. The biomass available for consumption by the

herbivores and the decomposers is called

(1) Net primary productivity

(2) Secondary productivity

(3) Standing crop

(4) Gross primary productivity

75. Which of the following wavelength of light is absorbed

maximum for photosynthesis?

(1) Red light (2) Blue light

(3) Green light (4) Yellow light

76. Cytochrome oxidase contain

(1) Fe (2) Hg

(3) Co (4) Mo

77. Tetanolysin is produced by

(1) Mycobacterium leprae

(2) Clostridium botulinum

(3) Clostridium tetani

(4) None of these

78. What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and

silver-fish?

(1) They all possess a dorsal heart

(2) None of them is aquatic

(3) They all belong to the same phylum

(4) They all have jointed paired appendages

79. Passive absorption of water is related to all, except

(1) Apoplastic pathway

(2) Transpiration pull plays the major role

(3) Development of a positive pressure in xylem

(4) Water absorption through the roots

80. Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop have

been instrumental in the discovery of:

(1) Photophosphorylation and non – cyclic electron

transport

(2) Two photosystems operating simultaneously

(3) Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport

(4) Oxidative phosphorylation

81. Biopiracy means

(1) Use of biopatents

(2) Thefts of plants and animals

(3) Staling of bio resources

(4) Exploitation of bio resources without authentic

permission

82. The chief water conducting elements of xylem in

gymnosperms are

(1) Vessels

(2) Fibers

(3) Transfusion tissue

(4) Tracheids

83. When a cell is plasmolysed, it becomes

(1) Flaccid and its TP become zero

(2) Turgid and its becomes zero

(3) Turgid and TP become equal to OP

(4) Flaccid and DPO become zero

84. Khorana got the Nobel Prize for

(1) t-RNA

(2) Genetic code

(3) Carbohydrate metabolism

(4) Protein synthesis

85. Gause’s Principle of competitive exclusion states that:

(1) More abundant species will exclude the less

abundant species through competition

(2) Competition for the same resources excludes

species having different food preference

(3) No two species can occupy the same niche

indefinitely for the same limiting resources

(4) Large organism exclude smaller ones through

competition

86. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids formed from

pollen grains is due to

(1) Cellular totipotency

(2) Organogenesis

(3) Double fertilisation

(4) Test – tube culture

87 The embryo of man is protected by

(1) Amniotic cavity

(2) Peritoneal cavity

(3) Pleural cavity

(4) Allantois

88. Select the correct statement regarding protein

synthesis.

(1) When the small subunit of the ribosome encounters

an mRNA the process of translation begins

(2) Peptidase catalyses the formation of peptide bond

(3) UTRs are present between the start codon and

stop codon

(4) At the end of translation the release factor binds

to the initiation codon

89. Chloride shift occurs in response to

(1) HCO¯

3 (2) K+

(3) H+ (4) Na+

90. An antiviral chemical produced by the animal cell is

(1) Virion (2) Interferon

(3) Repressor protein (4) Hormone




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